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beccatoriaHello US flisters (or others with information). I have a question. I am aware this will probably sound quite dumb, but I assure you this is an honest, unironic request for information because I am confused.
I keep seeing the claims - even from like, the "reputable-and-not-crazy" side of the anti-reform people - that public healthcare is bad because doctors will be accountable to the government, not the patient and that it will compromise a doctor's focus on the wellbeing of the patient.
But surely this is already the case, except the doctors are accountable to an insurance company rather than the government? Right? I mean, the only difference being that the government is paying the doctor/hospital rather than the insurance company?
How does following government guidelines while treating patients differ from following insurance-company issued guidelines?
Is this just a massive sleight-of-hand they're pulling? As I said, this is a completely honest question because I actually feel like I must be missing something, because I don't see how the double-standard there isn't blazingly obvious?
(Context for the curious: while not as pressing an issue as it must be for those of you living there, I'm interested in this as slightly more than a nosy british person in that I'm also a US national, that's where half my family lives, I have strong ties there and visit frequently.)
I keep seeing the claims - even from like, the "reputable-and-not-crazy" side of the anti-reform people - that public healthcare is bad because doctors will be accountable to the government, not the patient and that it will compromise a doctor's focus on the wellbeing of the patient.
But surely this is already the case, except the doctors are accountable to an insurance company rather than the government? Right? I mean, the only difference being that the government is paying the doctor/hospital rather than the insurance company?
How does following government guidelines while treating patients differ from following insurance-company issued guidelines?
Is this just a massive sleight-of-hand they're pulling? As I said, this is a completely honest question because I actually feel like I must be missing something, because I don't see how the double-standard there isn't blazingly obvious?
(Context for the curious: while not as pressing an issue as it must be for those of you living there, I'm interested in this as slightly more than a nosy british person in that I'm also a US national, that's where half my family lives, I have strong ties there and visit frequently.)
